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CREST CCRTM-MCLF Exam Syllabus Topics:
| Section | Objectives |
|---|---|
| Topic 1: Dropper/Implant Design, Safety and Secure Coding | - Implant Controls - Infrastructure Controls - Implant Droppers capabilities and risks - Secure Data Handling - Implant Core capabilities |
| Topic 2: Project Management, Governance & Oversight | - Communications plans - Incident Management Response - Stakeholder Management & Engagement Integrity - Stages of a red team engagement - Roles & responsibilities of the control group |
| Topic 3: Rules of Engagement, Contingencies and Scenario Simulation | - Types of scenarios - Contingencies / Client Facilitation - Test plans - Rules of Engagements |
| Topic 4: Planning & Scoping | - Stakeholders for engagements - Requirements Analysis (scoping) |
| Topic 5: Legal, Ethical and Moral Aspects of Attack Management | - Data handling legislation - Computer crime/cyber abuse and misuse legislation - Ethical testing considerations - Privacy legislation - Inadvertent and Collateral targeting - Additional relevant legislation or contractual information |
| Topic 6: Threat Intelligence | - Considerations of Threat models (digital vs Physical) - Benefits of Active vs Passive Methodologies - Sources of Threat Intelligence - Legalities / Ethics considerations of Threat Intelligence sources |
| Topic 7: Key Concepts | - Terminology - Red Team Frameworks - Red team, Purple team testing, penetration testing - Detection and Response Assessment - Attack Path Mapping & Attack Path Simulation |
| Topic 8: Risk Management, Reporting and Communication | - Articulating Risk - Lexicon - Internationally Recognised Standards and Frameworks - Engagement Risk Management |
| Topic 9: Attack Methodology, Key Stages & Common Frameworks | - Initial Access Techniques and Risks - Cloud Environment Testing and Risks - Attack Methodology Frameworks - Hybrid Environment Testing and Risks - Lateral Movement Techniques and Risks - Privilege Escalation Techniques and Risks - Persistence Techniques and Risks - Physical access control bypasses and risks |
CREST Certified Red Team Manager - Multiple Choice Long Form Sample Questions:
Which best describes the relevance of export control regulations (such as those under the Wassenaar Arrangement framework, as implemented in relevant national law) to red team tooling?
- A. Export control only applies to physical weapons, never software
- B. Export control considerations were entirely abolished in 2015
- C. Export control has no relevance whatsoever to cybersecurity tools
- D. Certain categories of intrusion software and related technology may be subject to export control restrictions, which organisations transferring or using such tools across borders need to be aware of and comply with
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Why is it important for a Red Team Manager to understand multiple regional frameworks even if their firm primarily delivers CBEST engagements?
- A. Client organisations increasingly operate across borders, and understanding the broader family of frameworks enables the manager to advise accurately on cross-jurisdictional obligations, avoid misapplying one scheme's requirements to another, and support informed, compliant programme design
- B. All frameworks are legally interchangeable so no additional understanding is needed
- C. It is not important; expertise in one framework is always sufficient for every client and jurisdiction
- D. Understanding other frameworks is purely of academic interest with no commercial relevance
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Which of the following best describes the governance rationale for the internal Red Team provider organisation applying rigorous internal quality assurance review to a report before it is delivered to the client?
- A. Internal QA review helps ensure findings are accurate, well-substantiated, clearly communicated, and consistent with agreed scope and professional standards before reaching the client, protecting both report quality and the provider's professional credibility
- B. Internal QA review exists solely to inflate the reported number of findings
- C. Internal QA review should only occur if specifically requested by the client
- D. Internal QA review has no bearing on report quality or client trust
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Which of the following best describes why the RoE typically requires explicit sign-off from named individuals rather than a generic organisational approval?
- A. Generic organisational approval is always legally superior to named individual sign-off
- B. Requiring sign-off from specific, named, accountable individuals creates a clear record of who personally reviewed and approved the operating rules, reinforcing genuine accountability and reducing ambiguity about authorisation
- C. Named sign-off has no legal or practical significance compared to generic approval
- D. Named sign-off is only a formality required for engagements over a certain price threshold
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Which report captures what the Blue Team observed and how it responded during the (initially blind) test, produced at Closure once the Blue Team has been briefed?
- A. The Blue Team Report
- B. The Attestation Letter
- C. The Targeted Threat Intelligence Report
- D. The Scope Specification Document
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